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| IMPORTANT BIOLOGY MCQ |
If you want to secure good marks in medical entrance examination you must score good marks in Biology
segment . if you are unable to do so it will be tough ask to score good marks in the examinations. There is altogether 90 questions and you must try to attempt all the question to score good marks and if you are
unable to do so then you must tey to attempt 8o questions at least and all the 80 questions must be correct and possibility of negative marking should be zero . If you want to secure your postions in final list of All India list . That is the reason in this site you will find more number of Biology MCQ questions then Chemistry and Physics .
To srengthen your concept and knowledge you must study NCERT text books for class XI and XII
thoroughly quite a number of times apart from your reference books . You must practice regularly Biology MCQ to strengthen your knowledge and concept. You must solve the MCQ categorically easier , little bit tougher , then tough one . You must mix the different level question in appropriate manner to make your preparation sound to handle the quality questions during the examination .
Due to this now on wards I will post 90 questions of biology MCQ regularly . To help you to prepare different types of questions for medical entrance examination .
1. The branch which is associated with diagnosis , prevention and cure of mental disorders is called
a) neurology b) psychiatry c) neuropsychiatry d) psychology
2. Induction of flowering by low temperature in plants is
a) cryobiology b) vernalization c) phototropism d) pruning
3. National bird of India is
a) Psittacula b) Passer domesticus c) Pavo cristatus d) Parakeet
4. Which of the following features can be said to be a true defining features of living beings without any
exception ?
a) They can digest their food b) All of them can reproduce c) They can regenerate\
d) They can respond to external stimuli
5. In Phylogenetic classification the groups are arranged
a) following the evolutionary trends b) according to floral similarities c) according to their
morphological characters d) according to their complexities
6. The taxon which includes related species is
a) class b) order c) family d) genus
7. Protista differs from monera in having
a) cell wall b) autotrophic nutrition c) flagella d) nuclear membrane
8. ' Ordines Anomali ' of Benthan and Hooker includes
a) seed plants showing abnormal forms of growth and development
b) plants described only in fossil state
c) plants described in the literature but which Bentham and Hooker did not see in original
d) a few orders which could not be placed satisfactorily in the classification
9. Bacteria , fungi ,lower plants survive in adverse conditions by
a) diapause b) suspended growth c) migration d) formation of thick walled spores
10. Nodules with flagella all over its body , is called
a) monotrichous b) amphitrichous c) lophotrichous d) peritrichous
11. Sexual reproduction in which DNA of bacteria is tranferred to another by the help of bacteriophage
a) transformation b) transduction c) transcription d) conjugation
12. Which of the following terms is not concerned with genetic recombination in bacteria ?
a) transformation b) transduction c) translation d) conjugation
13. Photosynthestic bacteria do not contain
a) quantasome b) PS - I and PS -II c) PS -II d) PS -I
14. A bacterial cell divides once every minute and it takes 1 hour to fill a cup . How much time will it take
to fill half the cup
a) 30 minutes b) 60 minutes c) 29 minutes d) 59 minutes
15. Thermococcus , Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemlify
a) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or oppositely supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well
as mitochondria
b) bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
c) archaebacteria that contains protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
d) archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is
negatively supercoiled
16. The chemical compounds which are produced by host plants due to infection as a defence reaction
to pathogen are called
a) phytotron b) phytotoxin c) phytoalexins d) phytol
17. The conidiophores of Penicillium are
a) uninucleate and colourless b) uninucleate and pigmented c) binucleate and pigmented
d) binucleate and colourless
18. Which of the following structures helps in the respiration of lichens ?
a) soredia b) isidia c) cyphella d) cephalodia
19. Among rust , smut and mushroom all the three
a) are pathogens b) are saprobes c) bear ascocarps d) bear basisiocarps
20. Deuteromycetes are known as fungi imperfecti because
a) their zygote undergoes meroblastic and holoblastic cleavage'
b) only asexual stages are known c) they have aseptate mycelium
d) they are autotrophic
21. In which of the following reticulate chloroplast is found ?
a) Oedogonium b) spirogyra c) Ectocarpus d) Ulothrix
22. Which of the following is known as resrrection plant ?
a) Rafflesia b) Selaginella c) Chlorella d) Welwitschia
23. Antherozoids of Dryopteris are
a) sickle shaped and multiflagellate b) coiled and multiflagellate c) sickle shaped and biflagellate
d) coiled and biflagellate
24. Triphasic life cycle is found in
a) Chondrus b) Laminaria c) Polysiphonia d) Macrocystis
25. A mature ligule having a prominent basal portion is called
a) trichocyst b) heterocyst c) rhizophore d) glossopodium
26. In Selaginella reduction division occurs during the formation of
a) sperms b) microspores only c) megaspores only d) both b and c
27. Which of the following is not a correct match ?
a) chord moss -- Funaria b) maiden hair tree --Ginkgo c) Walking fern -- Camptosorus
d) bog moss - Sphagnum
28. Primitive types of stomata are found in the
a) apophysis of capsule b) leaves of moss plant c) axes of the moss plant d) all of these
29. Elater mechanism for seed dispersal is exhibited by
a) Riccia b) Dryopteris c) Funaria d) Marchantia
30. Algae are useful because they
a) are large in number b) are used in alcoholic fermentation c) purify the atmosphere
d) are used in study of photosynthesis
31. Ectopholic siphonostele is found in
a) Osmunda and Equisetum b) Marsilea and Botrychium c) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae
d) Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern
32. Gametophyte and sporophyte are independent of each other in which of the following groups ?
a) pteridophytes b) angiosperms c) gymnosperms d) bryophytes
33. Occurence of triploid (3n) primary endosperm nucleus is a characteristic feature of
a) Algae b) Gymnosperms c) Angiosperms d) Bryohytes
34. Desmosomes are found in
a) epthelial tisuue b) muscular tissue c) nervous tissue d) all of these
35. Zonula adheres is a kind of
a) filament b) desosome c) membrane d) mesosome
36. The cell organelle associated with photorespiration is
a) mesosome b) ribosome c) peroxisome d) lysosome
37. The vacuoles are surrounded by a thin membrane called
a) plasmodesmata b) hydathodes c) tonoplast d) both b and c
38. Plasmodesmata connections help in :
a) cytoplasmic streaming b) synchronous mitotic divisions c) locomotion of unicellular organism
d) movement of substances between cells
39. The organelle found between cell wall of two cells is called
a) lomasome b) lysosome c) microsome d) middle lamella
40. The term chromatophore was coined by
a) Schmitz b) Comparethi c) W . Pfeiffer d) Singer and Nicholsan
41. Genes present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are found in
a) mitichondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm
b) lysosomes and peroxisomes
c) golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) plastids and inherited via male gamete
42. What are Singer and Nicholson known for ?
a) one - gene- one -enzyme hypothesis
b) plasma membrane modification c) fluid -mosaic model of plasma membrane
d) structure of DNA
43. In a 50gm living tissue what would be the amount of water ?
a) 15 - 25 gm b) 25 - 30 gm c) 35 - 45 gm d) 70 - 90 gm
44. During pairing of homologous chromosomes in meiosis is known as
a) bivalent b) synapsis c) disjunction d) synergid
45. During interphase RNA and proteins are synthesized in
a) G2 - phase b) G1 - phase c) S - phase d) all of these
46. During the cell cycle , 2 molecules of DNA are present in a chromosome in the
a) G1 phase b) beginning of S phase c) G2 phase d) end of M phase
47. When synapsis is complete all along the chromosomes , the cell is said to have entered a stage called
a) zygotene b) pachytene c) diplotene d) diakinesis
48. Many cells function properly and divide mitotically even though they do not have
a) plasma membrane b) cytoskeleton c) mitochondria d) plastids
49. Aerobic respiration produces more usable chemical energy than fermentation , because fermentation
involves
a) formation of lactic acid b) complete oxidation of food c) partial oxidation of food
d) evolution of CO2 and alcohol
50. First step of utilisation of glucose in metabolism is formation of
a) glycogen b) ATP c) pyruvic acid d) glucose-6-phosphate
51. In repiration from 180g of glucose which of the following is formed
a) 264gm CO2 + 190gm H2O + 391 kcal
b) 264 gm CO2 + 108gm H2O + 668 Kcal
c) 390 gm CO2 + 108 gm H2O + 686 Kcal
d) 390 gm CO2 + 264gm H2O + 391 Kcal
52. Glycolysis is found in cytoplasm of virtually all types of aerobic /anaerobic cells . In this process
glucose is converted into a compound which is
a)PEP b) acetyl Co-A c) pyruvic acid d) citric acid
53. Which of the following is the connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle ?
a) acetyl Co - A b) oxalosuccinic acid c) pyruvic acid d) citric acid
54. Cut surfaces of fruit and vegetables often become dark because
a) dirty knife makes it dark
b) oxidation of tannic acid in the presence of trace of iron from the knife makes it dark
c) dust of the air makes it dark d) none of the above
55. Enzymes with two sites are called
a) allosteric enzyme b) apoenzyme c) conjugate enzyme d) holoenzyme
56. Starch and cellulose are the compounds of many units of
a) amino acids b) glycerol c) simple sugars d) fatty acids
57. Glycosidic link is broken in digestion of
a) starch b) protein c) lipid d) all of these
58. Steroid hormones are almost similar in structure to
a) triglyceride b) tryosine c) coenzyme -A d) cholesterol
59. ' Sudan Black B ' stain is used to stain
a) nucleic acid b) protein c) polysaccharide d) lipid
60. The high energy bonds of ATP are between
a) C - O b) O - P c) C - N d) C - C
61. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid b) cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
c) hexokinase by glucose - 6 -phosphate d) carbonic anhydrase by carbon di oxide
62. Enzymes , vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals
because of all of these
a) enhance oxidative metabolism b) are conjugated proteins c) are exclusively synthesised in the
body of a living organism as at present d) help in regulating metabolism
63. The epistatic effect in which the hybrid cross 9:3:3:1 between AaBb x Aabb is modified as
a) dominance of one allele on another allele of both loci
b) interaction between two alleles of different loci
c) dominance of one allele on another allele of same loci
d) interaction between two alleles of same loci
64. Which of the following terms represents a pair of contrasting character ?
a) homozygous b) allele c) heterozygous d) phenotypes
65. Maize has ten pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage will be present if all the genes are mapped ?
a) 20 b) 5 c) 40 d) 10
66. Which of the following explains , how progeny can posses the combinations of traits that none of the
parent possessed ?
a) law of segregation b) chromosome theory c) law of independent assortment
d) polygenic inheritance
67. The presence of continuous phenotypic varation in an F1 - generation suggests that a character is
inherited by
a) gene linkage b) epistasis c) polygenic inheritance d) recombination
68. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with adwarf and white flowered individual,
phenotype in the progeny is dwarf and white. What will be the genotype of tall and red flowered
individual ?
a) TtRr b) TTRR c) TTRr d) TtRR
69. There is an irregular mating population. If the frequency of an autosomal recessive lethal gene is 0.4 ,
then the frequency of the carriers in a population of 200 individuals is
a) 96 b) 36 c) 104 d) 72
70. Inheritance of ABO blood groups illustrates
a) euploidy b) polyploidy c) incomplete dominance d) multiple allelism
71. Colour blindness in which all the colours are perceived as grey is termed as
a) monochromasia b) chromasia c) dichromasia d) all of these
72. Philadelphia chromosome is found in the patient suffering from
a) albinism b) insomia c) myelocytic leukaemia d) hepatitis
73. The genes which are confined to differential region of Y - chromosome only are called
a) mutant b) autosomal c) holandric d) sex -linked
74. XO - chromosomal abnormality in human beings causes
a) Turner's syndrome b) Down's syndrome c) Klinefelter's syndrome d) none of these
75. A pregnant woman , who has done aminocentesis test , finds an extra barr body in her embryo . The
ayndrome which is likely to be associate d with embryo is
a)Edward's syndrome b) Down's syndrome c) Klinefelter's syndrome d)Patau's syndrome
76. ' Gametes are never hybrid '. This is a statement of
a) law of dominance b) law of independent assortment c) law of segregation
d) law of random fertilisation
77. Mendel was not able to say anything about recombination and crossing over because
a) he did not have a large and strong microscope
b) he choose only pure type
c) traits he chose were not linked and present on different chromosomes or were far apart
d) traits he chose had no genes
78. Frameshift mutation occurs when
a) base is deleted b) base is deleted or added c) base is added d) anticodons are not present
79. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes . Following the cross AABBCC
( dark colour ) x aabbcc ( light colour , in F2 generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to
resemble either parent ?
a) none b) less than 5% c) one third d) half
80. The distance between two genes in a chromosome is measured in cross - over units which represent
a) ratio of crossing over between them
b) percentage of crossing over between them
c) number of crossing over between them
d) none of these
81. Which of the following conditions represents a case of co-dominant genes ?
a) a gene expresses itself , suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles
b) genes that are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately but when together interact to
produce a different trait
c) alleles both of which interact to produce a trait which may or may not resemble either of the
parental type
d) alleles each of which produces an independent effect in a heterozygous condition
82. Which of the following are intiator codons ?
a)UGA and UAG B) UUU and UUC C) AUG and GUG D) UAA and UAG
83. The jumping genes are called
a) cistrons b) mutons c) transposons d) recons
84. Cis-trans test is related with
a) crossing over b) mutation c) genetic map d) heredity
85. Which of the following correctly represents the flow of genetic information ?
a) DNA -----> RNA ------> protein b) RANA ----> DNA ----> protein
c) RNA ----> protein -----> DNA d) protein -----> RNA ----> DNA
86.Which of the following is non-genetic and is utilised for protein synthesis ?
a) t - RNA b) Z - RNA c) m - RNA d) none of these
87. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence ATGCTTGA , the sequence in the
complementary strand will be
a) TAGGTAGT b) TACGTACT c) TACGAACT d) TCCGAACT
88. How many genome types are present in atypical green plants cell ?
a) more than five b) more than ten c) two d) three
89. Percentage of recombination between A and B is 9 % A and C is 17 % B and C is 26 % , then the
arrangement of gene is
a) ABC b) ACB c) BCA d) BAC
90. The binding site of tRNA with mRNA and amino acids respectively are
a) m-RNA with DHU loop and amino acid with CCA end
b) m-RNA with CCA end and amino acid with antocodon loop
c) m-RNA with anticodon loop and amino acid with DHU loop
d) m-RNA with antocodon loop and amino acid with CCA end
BEST OF LUCK
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